Sale ends todayGet 30% off any course (excluding packages)
Ends in --- --- ---
Forum Posts
Courses
Blog
Tech Articles
I noticed on all on your demonstration that the fuel target is always richer than actual AFR. Therefore, you use your current AFR/target AFR then multiply by the current number(ve/injector ms). Can you explain the opposite when the fuel target is leaner than the actual AFR?
Hi Shi Jie
To work it out is exactly the same way. Example. If you are at 14.0 and want 12.2 you say 14/12.2 = 1.15 so you multiple the value by 1.15 or add 15%
Now if you go the other way, you are at 13.0 and want 14.7 then 13/14.7 = .88 so you multiply the value by 0.88 or minus 12%
